Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 10:47
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What are some examples of unofficial acts by presidents?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Can anyone or anything overthrow your belief in the Jewish God?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Do older men realize that younger women usually do not prefer them?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.